Indian Polity Quiz: 30 Important MCQs for Competitive Exams

Sharpen Indian polity with a tough-level quiz built for UPSC, SSC, NDA, and police exams, covering Fundamental Rights, DPSP, Parliament, Judiciary, federalism, and constitutional bodies for fast exam-style revision. Designed to test depth, accuracy, and speed—ideal for last-mile preparation and quick self-assessment.

Indian Polity Quiz for UPSC, SSC, NDA & Police Exams

Under Article 131, the Supreme Court's original jurisdiction extends to disputes between:
1. Union and one or more States where a question of law or fact exists
2. Union and citizens regarding Fundamental Rights
3. Two or more citizens from different States
4. State and local bodies regarding taxation
Show Answer

Correct answer: A
Article 131 confers exclusive original jurisdiction over disputes between the Union and States or among States involving a question (of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
Which constitutional changes require ratification by not less than one-half of the States under Article 368?
1. Any Amendment affecting Part III only
2. Matters like election of the President, extent of the Supreme Court's powers, and distribution of legislative powers
3. Any Amendment introducing a new Directive Principle
4. Any Amendment altering Fundamental Duties
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
Amendments affecting federal features—President's election, Union–State legislative lists, Supreme Court/High Court jurisdiction—need State ratification.
Who has the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
2. Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. President of India
4. Finance Minister
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
Article 110(3): The Speaker's decision on whether a Bill is a Money Bill is final.
A joint sitting of both Houses can be summoned to resolve a deadlock for all of the following EXCEPT:
1. Ordinary legislation
2. Financial Bill (non-Money)
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
4. A Bill returned by the President under Article 111
Show Answer

Correct answer: C
Article 368 amendments cannot be decided by joint sitting; only ordinary bills under Article 108.
Which statement on Ordinances (Article 123) is correct?
1. They remain valid for one year from promulgation regardless of Parliament's sessions
2. They must be laid before both Houses and cease six weeks after reassembly unless approved
3. They can amend the Constitution
4. They cannot be withdrawn by the President once issued
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
An ordinance lapses six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless passed; it cannot amend the Constitution.
Which is NOT correct about parliamentary privileges in India?
1. They include freedom of speech within the House
2. They are fully codified in the Constitution
3. They extend to parliamentary committees
4. Breach may constitute contempt of the House
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
Privileges are partly defined; much is uncodified and based on rules, statutes, and precedents.
Under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection), which is true after the 91st Constitutional Amendment?
1. Split by one-third exempts members from disqualification
2. Merger requires at least two-thirds of members of a party
3. Presiding officer's decision is not subject to judicial review
4. Nominated members are immediately subject to the Schedule upon nomination
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
The split exception was deleted; merger requires two-thirds. Decisions are reviewable; nominated members become subject after 6 months.
Finance Commission (Article 280) recommendations are:
1. Binding on Union and States
2. Advisory; accepted generally but not legally binding
3. Binding if endorsed by the President
4. Binding only on States
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
Finance Commission recommendations are advisory in nature; acceptance is executive/legislative.
Regarding the CAG of India, which is correct?
1. Appointed by President and removed by a simple majority
2. Remuneration is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
3. Does not audit government companies under the Companies Act
4. Reports are laid only before the Rajya Sabha
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
CAG's salary is charged on CFI; removal is like a SC judge; CAG audits/governs audit of PSUs; reports are laid before Parliament.
Which veto is NOT available to the President in case of a Money Bill?
1. Absolute veto
2. Suspensive veto (return for reconsideration)
3. Assent after recommendations
4. Withholding assent
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
A Money Bill cannot be returned to the Lok Sabha; the President may assent or withhold.
The Basic Structure doctrine was established by which judgment?
1. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
2. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
3. Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)
4. Waman Rao v. Union of India (1981)
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
Kesavananda Bharati (13-judge bench) propounded the basic structure limitation on amending power.
Regarding Ninth Schedule (Article 31B), which is correct post I.R. Coelho (2007)?
1. All laws in Ninth Schedule are immune from judicial review
2. Laws inserted after 24 April 1973 can be reviewed for violation of basic structure
3. Only land reforms laws can be placed there
4. SC struck down the entire Ninth Schedule
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
I.R. Coelho held post-1973 insertions are subject to basic-structure review.
Which Directive Principle was explicitly added to provide free legal aid?
1. Article 39
2. Article 39A
3. Article 41
4. Article 45
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
Article 39A (42nd Amendment) provides for equal justice and free legal aid.
Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) were added by the 42nd Amendment; which is true now?
1. There are 10 Fundamental Duties
2. They are enforceable by writ of mandamus as of right
3. An additional duty (to provide education) was added by the 86th Amendment
4. They override Fundamental Rights
Show Answer

Correct answer: C
The 86th Amendment added the duty to provide opportunities for education to children (making 11 duties).
State Election Commission is provided under:
1. Article 243K
2. Article 324
3. Article 280
4. Article 249
Show Answer

Correct answer: A
Article 243K deals with superintendence of elections to Panchayats (and 243ZA for Municipalities).
Which Schedule provides autonomous district councils in certain North-Eastern areas?
1. Fifth Schedule
2. Sixth Schedule
3. Seventh Schedule
4. Twelfth Schedule
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
The Sixth Schedule provides for autonomous councils in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
After the 44th Amendment, a Proclamation of National Emergency may be made on grounds of:
1. War, external aggression, or internal disturbance
2. War, external aggression, or armed rebellion
3. Financial instability
4. Breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
‘Internal disturbance' was replaced by ‘armed rebellion'.
Under Article 359 (post-44th Amendment), which Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended even during Emergency?
1. Articles 14 and 22
2. Articles 20 and 21
3. Articles 19 and 32
4. Articles 23 and 24
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
The right to life and personal liberty (Arts. 20, 21) cannot be suspended.
Financial Emergency (Article 360) implies that the President may:
1. Dissolve Lok Sabha immediately
2. Direct States to reserve all Money Bills
3. Reduce salaries of all or any class of persons including judges
4. Suspend the operation of Part III
Show Answer

Correct answer: C
Article 360 empowers directions including reduction of salaries, and requiring money bills to be reserved may be directed.
Which provision allows Parliament to create an Inter-State Council?
1. Article 262
2. Article 263
3. Article 280
4. Article 312
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
Article 263 provides for an Inter-State Council by Presidential order.
L. Chandra Kumar (1997) held that decisions of tribunals under Articles 323A/323B are subject to:
1. Only Supreme Court's review under Article 136
2. Judicial review of High Courts under Articles 226/227
3. No judicial review
4. Review only by the same tribunal
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
The judgment restored the writ jurisdiction of High Courts over such tribunals.
Election Commission: which is correct?
1. CEC and ECs are removable only like SC judges
2. CEC is removable like a SC judge; ECs can be removed only on recommendation of CEC
3. All are removable by simple majority
4. Removal requires a judicial inquiry by the Supreme Court
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
Article 324(5): CEC removal like SC judge; ECs on CEC's recommendation.
Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is:
1. Statutory under the RPA, 1951
2. Issued by ECI; not a law but enforced through moral-suasion and allied powers
3. Part of the Constitution
4. A rule under the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
MCC is not statutory; ECI uses plenary powers under Art 324 and other levers for compliance.
Residuary legislative powers in India lie with:
1. States
2. Concurrent list authorities
3. Union Parliament
4. Local bodies
Show Answer

Correct answer: C
Unlike the U.S., India vests residuary powers in Parliament (Article 248 & Entry 97, Union List).
Governor may reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President primarily under:
1. Article 110
2. Article 111
3. Article 200
4. Article 356
Show Answer

Correct answer: C
Article 200 provides for Governor's assent, withholding, or reservation for the President.
Public Accounts Committee (PAC) and Estimates Committee—identify the correct pairing:
1. Both are joint committees of Parliament
2. PAC examines CAG reports; Estimates Committee suggests economies and is Lok Sabha-only
3. PAC is chaired by Speaker; Estimates by Leader of Opposition
4. Both are chaired by the Finance Minister
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
PAC scrutinizes CAG reports; Estimates Committee (LS only) recommends economies. PAC often chaired by opposition member.
Speaker of Lok Sabha does NOT have which of the following powers?
1. Certifying Money Bills
2. Casting vote in case of tie
3. Deciding questions of disqualification under Tenth Schedule
4. Dissolving the Lok Sabha
Show Answer

Correct answer: D
Dissolution is by the President; other listed powers are within Speaker's remit.
Under Articles 32 and 226, which pairing is correct?
1. Article 32: constitutional right; Article 226: only for Fundamental Rights
2. Article 32: against State only; Article 226: against private parties only
3. Article 226 scope is wider (for FR and other purposes); Article 32 is for enforcement of Fundamental Rights
4. Both are identically scoped
Show Answer

Correct answer: C
HCs under Art 226 can issue writs for FRs and ‘any other purpose’; Art 32 confines to FR enforcement.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a Money Bill under Article 110?
1. It contains only provisions dealing with taxation/CFI/CF of State, etc.
2. Rajya Sabha can only recommend amendments within 14 days
3. President may return it for reconsideration
4. It must be introduced only in the Lok Sabha
Show Answer

Correct answer: C
Money Bill cannot be returned; RS has recommendatory role; it is introduced in LS with prior recommendation.
Which fund requires parliamentary authorization through Appropriation Act for withdrawals?
1. Public Account of India
2. Consolidated Fund of India
3. Contingency Fund of India
4. Prime Minister's National Relief Fund
Show Answer

Correct answer: B
All expenditure from the CFI requires appropriation by Parliament.
Which majority is needed to pass most Constitution Amendment Bills (not requiring state ratification)?
1. Simple majority of members present and voting
2. Absolute majority of total membership and simple majority of States
3. Special majority: majority of total membership of each House and 2/3rd of members present and voting
4. Effective majority in joint sitting
Show Answer

Correct answer: C
Article 368 requires special majority in each House; some also require state ratification.

We hope these 30 Indian Polity MCQs helped sharpen your preparation for UPSC, SSC, NDA, and Police exams. Practicing exam-style questions regularly builds confidence, improves accuracy, and strengthens your understanding of the Constitution. Keep revising with our other Indian Polity quizzes, Current Affairs sets, and subject-wise MCQs to stay ahead in the competition.

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