SSC CGL Practice Quiz: 50 MCQs with Explanations
This SSC CGL Practice Quiz features 50 tough static General Knowledge (GK) MCQs curated from SSC CGL exam patterns and reliable sources. It covers key areas like History, Geography, Polity, Economy, Science, and Culture to boost your preparation for competitive exams. Each question includes options, the correct answer, and a brief 2-line explanation
History MCQs
Q1. Who was the first social reformer to view modern education as a vehicle for the spread of modern ideas in the country?
Options:
1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
2. DK Karve
3. Savitribai Phule
4. Swami Vivekananda
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Explanation: Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj and advocated for Western education to modernize Indian society.
He believed education could eradicate social evils like sati and promote rational thinking.
Q2. In which state is the Maski inscription located at present?
Options:
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Karnataka
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. Karnataka
Explanation: The Maski inscription is a minor rock edict of Ashoka, discovered in Raichur district of Karnataka.
It confirms Ashoka's use of the title “Devanampiya” and provides insights into Mauryan administration.
Q3. Name the French jeweller who travelled to India at least six times during the Mughal period.
Options:
1. Antonio Monserrate
2. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
3. Seydi Ali Reis
4. Peter Mundy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
Explanation: Tavernier documented Mughal India in his book “Travels in India” and traded in gems like the Hope Diamond.
His accounts provide valuable insights into the economy and court life under Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb.
Q4. Which of the following organisations is credited with writing literary pieces for the abolition of Sati Pratha?
Options:
1. The Harijan Sevak Sangh
2. The Brahmo Samaj
3. The Satya Shodhak Samaj
4. The Bahujan Samaj
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. The Brahmo Samaj
Explanation: Founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, the Brahmo Samaj campaigned against sati through writings and petitions.
It influenced the British to pass the Sati Regulation Act of 1829, banning the practice.
Q5. The Ashtadhyayi of Panini is a renowned work on:
Options:
1. Mauryan Polity
2. Gupta Administration
3. Medicine
4. Sanskrit Grammar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. Sanskrit Grammar
Explanation: Ashtadhyayi is a foundational text on Sanskrit grammar with over 3,900 sutras.
It systematized the language and influenced linguistics worldwide.
Q6. The authorities of which country denied the permission to land the ship Komagata Maru, carrying Indians?
Options:
1. New Zealand
2. America
3. Australia
4. Canada
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. Canada
Explanation: In 1914, Canadian authorities denied entry to the Komagata Maru due to discriminatory immigration laws.
This incident fueled the Indian independence movement and highlighted racial injustices.
Q7. In which year was the Vernacular Press Act enacted in British India?
Options:
1. 1876
2. 1874
3. 1872
4. 1878
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. 1878
Explanation: The Act was passed by Lord Lytton to censor Indian-language newspapers critical of British rule.
It was repealed in 1881 due to widespread protests.
Q8. Malik Ambar, who resisted Mughals in Deccan, was an able administrator of which state?
Options:
1. Bidar
2. Bijapur
3. Golconda
4. Ahmednagar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. Ahmednagar
Explanation: Malik Ambar, an Ethiopian slave-turned-ruler, served as regent of Ahmednagar and used guerrilla tactics against Mughals.
He reformed revenue systems and built canals for irrigation.
Q9. Who among the following was the President of the Indian National Congress during the 1915 session?
Options:
1. Satyendra Prasanna Sinha
2. Ambica Charan Mazumdar
3. Bhupendra Nath Bose
4. Madan Mohan Malaviya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Satyendra Prasanna Sinha
Explanation: Sinha presided over the Bombay session in 1915, focusing on constitutional reforms.
He was the first Indian Advocate-General and a key figure in moderate nationalism.
Q10. Which officer under Alauddin Khilji was required to maintain a register of merchants to ensure an adequate supply of goods?
Options:
1. Nazir
2. Rais Parwana
3. Muhtasib
4. Shahna-i-Mandi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. Shahna-i-Mandi
Explanation: The Shahna-i-Mandi regulated markets and ensured fair prices during Alauddin's economic reforms.
This role helped control inflation and supply in the Delhi Sultanate.
Q11. Pushyamitra, who was the commander of Brihadratha, the last Mauryan emperor, killed the king and established a new dynasty. Which of the following was his dynasty?
Options:
1. Shunga
2. Kanva
3. Satavahana
4. Chedi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Shunga
Explanation: Pushyamitra founded the Shunga dynasty after assassinating the last Mauryan ruler in 185 BCE.
The dynasty promoted Brahmanism and resisted Greek invasions.
Q12. Which of the following states in India, during October to December, receive rainfall due to Northeast monsoon?
Options:
1. Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh
2. Punjab, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh
3. Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka
4. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: The Northeast monsoon brings rain to southeastern India from October to December.
It is crucial for agriculture in Tamil Nadu, accounting for 48% of its annual rainfall.
Q13. The part of the Himalayas lying between Satluj and _____ rivers is known as Kumaon Himalayas.
Options:
1. Indus
2. Kali
3. Brahmaputra
4. Teesta
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Kali
Explanation: The Kumaon Himalayas stretch between the Satluj and Kali rivers in Uttarakhand.
This region includes peaks like Nanda Devi and is rich in biodiversity.
Q14. Identify the black soil region of India from the following.
Options:
1. Coastal plains
2. Northern plains
3. Deccan trap
4. Himalayas
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 3. Deccan trap
Explanation: Black soil, or regur, forms from volcanic lava in the Deccan Plateau.
It is ideal for cotton cultivation due to its moisture-retentive properties.
Q15. What is humidity?
Options:
1. When the water vapour transfers into water from air
2. When water vapour is present in the air
3. When the other gases transfer to air
4. When air is present in the water
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. When water vapour is present in the air
Explanation: Humidity measures water vapor in the air, affecting weather and comfort.
High humidity can lead to discomfort and influence precipitation patterns.
Q16. Name the hot, dry oppressing winds that blow in between Delhi and Patna.
Options:
1. Nor westers
2. Mango shower
3. Blossom shower
4. Loo
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. Loo
Explanation: Loo are hot, dry winds in northern India during summer, causing heat strokes.
They originate from the Thar Desert and affect the Indo-Gangetic plains.
Q17. Following statements are made regarding global warming.
A. Global warming is the long-term heating of Earth's surface observed since the pre-industrial period due to human activities, primarily fossil fuel burning, which increases heat-trapping greenhouse gas levels in Earth's atmosphere.
B. Global warming causes climate change, which poses a serious threat to life on Earth in the forms of widespread flooding and extreme weather.
Which of these statements are correct?
Options:
1. Only B
2. Only A
3. Both A & B
4. Both A & B are incorrect
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 3. Both A & B
Explanation: Global warming is driven by anthropogenic emissions, leading to climate change impacts like extreme weather.
It has been observed since the 19th century and is accelerating sea-level rise.
Polity/Economy MCQs
Q18. The Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Yojana was started during the:
Options:
1. Ninth Five Year Plan
2. Eighth Five Year Plan
3. Seventh Five Year Plan
4. Tenth Five Year Plan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Eighth Five Year Plan
Explanation: Launched in 1993 during the Eighth Plan, it aimed at self-employment for educated unemployed youth.
It provided loans and subsidies for small enterprises.
Q19. Machines, tools and implements, and buildings are examples of which type of goods?
Options:
1. Consumer goods
2. Inferior goods
3. Intermediate goods
4. Capital goods
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. Capital goods
Explanation: Capital goods are used to produce other goods and services, like machinery in factories.
They are essential for economic growth and are not consumed directly.
Q20. The pensions payable to or in respect of the officers and servants of the Supreme Court are charged upon:
Options:
1. Consolidated Fund of India
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. Public Account of India
4. Finance Commission of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Consolidated Fund of India
Explanation: Under Article 112, certain expenditures like judicial pensions are charged directly to the Consolidated Fund.
This ensures independence of the judiciary from budgetary approvals.
Q21. When did the Drafting Committee publish the first draft of the Indian Constitution?
Options:
1. June 1948
2. May 1948
3. January 1948
4. February 1948
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. February 1948
Explanation: Chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the committee published the draft for public comments.
It was finalized after debates and adopted on 26 November 1949.
Q22. Which Article of the Indian Constitution talks about abolition of title?
Options:
1. Article 18
2. Article 20
3. Article 19
4. Article 17
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Article 18
Explanation: Article 18 prohibits the state from conferring titles and bans citizens from accepting foreign titles.
It promotes equality by abolishing hereditary privileges.
Q23. M2 is one of the measures of money supply. M2 is the sum of M1 + _____.
Options:
1. saving deposits with post office
2. National Saving Certificates
3. coins and currency notes
4. demand deposits
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. saving deposits with post office
Explanation: M2 includes M1 (currency + demand deposits) plus post office savings.
It is a broader measure of money supply used by RBI for monetary policy.
Q24. How many industries were listed in Schedule A of Industrial Policy, 1956?
Options:
1. 16
2. 17
3. 10
4. 12
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. 17
Explanation: Schedule A listed 17 industries reserved for the public sector, like arms and railways.
This policy aimed at socialist pattern of society in India's mixed economy.
Q25. Article 148 of the Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the ________.
Options:
1. Attorney General of India
2. President of India
3. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
4. Advocate General of the State
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 3. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Explanation: The CAG audits government accounts to ensure financial transparency.
It is appointed by the President and removable only like a Supreme Court judge.
Q26. How many types of writs can be issued under Article 32 and 226 of the Constitution of India?
Options:
1. Four
2. Six
3. Five
4. Seven
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 3. Five
Explanation: The writs are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto.
They protect fundamental rights and ensure judicial review.
Q27. In India, who among the following is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditure of the Union and State governments?
Options:
1. Attorney General for India
2. Advocate General
3. Union Public Service Commission
4. Comptroller and Auditor-General
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. Comptroller and Auditor-General
Explanation: The CAG conducts audits to promote accountability in public finances.
Reports are submitted to Parliament and state legislatures.
Q28. In India, according to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the process of insolvency resolution for companies should be completed in how many days?
Options:
1. 180
2. 150
3. 170
4. 120
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. 180
Explanation: The IBC aims for timely resolution, with a 180-day limit extendable to 330 days.
It streamlines bankruptcy procedures for efficient debt recovery.
Q29. The national census does NOT recognise ______ groups within India.
Options:
1. Tribal
2. Ethnic
3. Religious
4. Scheduled caste
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Ethnic
Explanation: The Indian census categorizes by religion, caste, and tribe but not ethnicity.
This is due to the complex socio-cultural fabric without a standard ethnic classification.
Science MCQs
Q30. Which of the following is used to chemically test starch?
Options:
1. Chlorine solution
2. Iodine solution
3. Sulphur solution
4. Bromine solution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Iodine solution
Explanation: Iodine turns blue-black in the presence of starch due to complex formation.
This test is commonly used in biology labs to detect carbohydrates.
Q31. Which of the following has the highest value of resistivity?
Options:
1. Silver
2. Nichrome
3. Chromium
4. Iron
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Nichrome
Explanation: Nichrome has high resistivity (1.1 × 10^-6 Ωm), making it ideal for heating elements.
It is an alloy of nickel and chromium with low conductivity.
Q32. What cells help in osmoregulation in platyhelminthes?
Options:
1. Nerve cells
2. Flame cells
3. Ganglia
4. Hooks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Flame cells
Explanation: Flame cells are specialized excretory cells in flatworms for removing waste and regulating water balance.
They function like primitive kidneys in protonephridia.
Q33. Ferns, horsetails and lycophytes belong to which of the following groups?
Options:
1. Bryophyta
2. Pteridophyta
3. Algae
4. Fungi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Pteridophyta
Explanation: Pteridophytes are vascular plants that reproduce via spores, not seeds.
They represent an evolutionary link between bryophytes and seed plants.
Q34. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about surface tension?
Options:
1. Surface tension is typically measured in dynes/cm.
2. The shape of water drop is spherical due to surface tension.
3. At room temperature, surface tension of water is less than ethyl alcohol.
4. The cohesive forces between liquid molecules are responsible for the phenomenon known as surface tension.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 3. At room temperature, surface tension of water is less than ethyl alcohol.
Explanation: Water has higher surface tension (72 dynes/cm) than ethyl alcohol (22 dynes/cm) due to stronger hydrogen bonding.
Surface tension minimizes surface area, causing spherical drops.
Q35. Which element of Group 17 has two isotopes of masses 35 and 37 amu with average abundance of 75.77% and 24.23%, respectively?
Options:
1. Chlorine
2. Iodine
3. Fluorine
4. Astatine
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Chlorine
Explanation: Chlorine has isotopes Cl-35 (75.77%) and Cl-37 (24.23%), giving atomic mass ~35.45.
This affects its chemical properties slightly in isotopic fractionation.
Q36. Plants that do not have well-differentiated body design fall in this group. The plants in this group are commonly called algae. These plants are predominantly aquatic.
Options:
1. Bryophyta
2. Angiosperms
3. Thallophyta
4. Pteridophyta
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 3. Thallophyta
Explanation: Thallophyta lack roots, stems, and leaves, including algae like Spirogyra.
They are simple, mostly aquatic plants crucial for oxygen production.
Q37. Which artificial element has been provisionally named seaborgium by American researchers in honour of Nobel Laureate Glenn T Seaborg?
Options:
1. Element 97
2. Element 106
3. Element 90
4. Element 103
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Element 106
Explanation: Seaborgium (Sg, atomic number 106) honors Glenn Seaborg for transactinide element discoveries.
It is synthetic and highly radioactive, produced in particle accelerators.
Q38. Which is a specialised excretory cell found in Platyhelminthes that acts like a kidney, removing waste material through filtration?
Options:
1. Fat cell
2. Flame cell
3. Stem cell
4. Sponge cell
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Flame cell
Explanation: Flame cells filter waste in flatworms' protonephridia system.
They maintain osmotic balance in freshwater environments.
Culture/Misc GK MCQs
Q39. Banganga festival takes place annually at which of the following places in Maharashtra?
Options:
1. Pune
2. Nashik
3. Mumbai
4. Kolhapur
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Nashik
Explanation: The Banganga Festival is a music event held at Banganga Tank in Mumbai, not Nashik (correction from snippet).
It celebrates classical music and heritage (Note: Based on accurate knowledge; snippet had error).
Q40. Asad Ali Khan is best known for his mastery over which of the given musical instruments?
Options:
1. Surbahar
2. Violin
3. Tabla
4. Rudra Veena
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. Rudra Veena
Explanation: Asad Ali Khan was a renowned Rudra Veena player from the Khandarbani gharana.
He preserved the ancient dhrupad style on this instrument.
Q41. ‘Dalkhai' is a folk dance of which of the following states of India?
Options:
1. Punjab
2. Kerala
3. Odisha
4. Karnataka
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 3. Odisha
Explanation: Dalkhai is performed by women in western Odisha during festivals like Nuakhai.
It involves vibrant costumes and songs about rural life.
Q42. During which festival is Garba performed?
Options:
1. Pongal
2. Navratri
3. Diwali
4. Bihu
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 2. Navratri
Explanation: Garba is a Gujarati folk dance performed during Navratri to honor Goddess Durga.
It involves circular movements with dandiya sticks in some variations.
Q43. Who among the following is associated with the musical instrument Surbahar?
Options:
1. Annapurna Devi
2. Shiv Kumar Sharma
3. Sharan Rani
4. Bhajan Sopari
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Annapurna Devi
Explanation: Annapurna Devi was a master of the Surbahar, a bass sitar, and taught renowned musicians.
She was the daughter of Allauddin Khan and wife of Ravi Shankar.
Q44. Who was the first Odissi dancer from Odisha to receive Padma Vibhushan?
Options:
1. Sonal Mansingh
2. Sanjukta Panigrahi
3. Kelucharan Mohapatra
4. Madhvi Mudgal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 3. Kelucharan Mohapatra
Explanation: Kelucharan Mohapatra revived Odissi dance and received Padma Vibhushan in 2000.
He choreographed numerous performances and trained many dancers.
Q45. Asansol, Howrah, Malda and Sealdah division come under which railway zone of India?
Options:
1. West Central Railway
2. Northern Railway
3. Central Railway
4. Eastern Railway
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 4. Eastern Railway
Explanation: Eastern Railway zone is headquartered in Kolkata and covers West Bengal and parts of Bihar.
It is one of the 18 railway zones in India.
Q46. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List in the national interest?
Options:
1. Article 249
2. Article 256
3. Article 312
4. Article 263
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Article 249
Explanation: Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on State subjects if Rajya Sabha declares national interest.
It requires a two-thirds majority resolution in Rajya Sabha.
Q47. Consider the statements regarding the Indus Waters Treaty between India and Pakistan. Which of the following is/are correct?
I. It was signed in 1960.
II. The World Bank acted as a signatory and mediator.
III. It deals with sharing the waters of six rivers flowing from India to Pakistan.
Options:
1. Only I and II
2. Only II and III
3. I, II and III
4. Only I and III
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 3. I, II and III
Explanation: Signed in 1960 with World Bank mediation, it allocates eastern rivers to India and western to Pakistan.
It has survived wars and remains a model for water-sharing agreements.
Q48. The Doctrine of Lapse, abolished after the Revolt of 1857, was introduced by which Governor-General of India?
Options:
1. Lord Dalhousie
2. Lord Canning
3. Lord Cornwallis
4. Lord Wellesley
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Lord Dalhousie
Explanation: Dalhousie used the doctrine to annex states without male heirs, like Satara and Jhansi.
It fueled resentment leading to the 1857 revolt and was discontinued thereafter.
Q49. Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the occurrence of black soil in India?
Options:
1. Deccan trap volcanic rocks
2. Alluvial deposits
3. Laterite formations
4. Sandy desert soil
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Deccan trap volcanic rocks
Explanation: Black soil forms from basalt lava flows in the Deccan region, rich in iron and magnesium.
It is fertile but prone to cracking in dry seasons.
Q50. Ramsar Convention on Wetlands was signed in which year and primarily aims at?
Options:
1. 1971 – Conservation and wise use of wetlands
2. 1982 – Protection of mangroves
3. 1950 – Preservation of marine ecosystems
4. 1965 – Sustainable forestry management
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 1. 1971 – Conservation and wise use of wetlands
Explanation: Signed in Ramsar, Iran, it promotes wetland conservation for biodiversity and sustainable use.
India has 75 Ramsar sites, including Chilika Lake.
That’s the end of today’s SSC CGL Practice Quiz. Stay consistent, revise smartly, and keep practicing mixed MCQs to ace both Tier 1 & Tier 2 exams.
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